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TRINITARIAN QUESTIONS & APOSTOLIC ANSWERS
A LECTURE ON THE ONENESS OF GOD
From an Internet presentation by Pastor Gary Reckart
QUESTIONS
3.Was
Jesus praying to Himself in the Garden of Gethsemane?
4.If
Jesus was praying to the divine side of Himself then isn't He still
praying to himself?
6.If
baptism is essential for salvation, then what happens to someone
who repents of sin, accepts Jesus as Savior, walks across the street to
get baptized but is killed by a car. Does he go to heaven or hell?
1.If he goes to heaven, then
baptism isn't a requirement is it?
2.If he goes to hell, then faith in
Christ isn't sufficient to save him is it?
8.If
God is only one person, why did Jesus say in John 14:23, "If a man
love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will
come unto him, and make our abode with him." If God is only one
person, why does Jesus say, "we"?
ANSWERS
Answer: No! The Father of
the Son of God was the Holy Ghost (And the angel answered and said unto her,
the Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall
overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee
shall be called the SON OF GOD (Luke 1:35).
Answer: This is a
trinitarian riddle. If the Father who is God had a will separate from an
eternal Son who they say is God and both had a separate will, then this proves
there are two separate Gods. If the premise of the question is false then no
answer is needed. What is missing here is the trinitarian denial of the angel's
words "that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the
Son of God! Oneness recognizes the humanity born of Mary as the Son of God.
Thus Jesus was God and Man, two wills, but one God. The will of the flesh is as
in all of us (since he was made like unto us--Hebrews 2:17) subject to the will
of eternal Deity. The flesh was not God! It was the Son of God. Trinitarians
confuse the flesh (Son of God) with their mythical eternal co-existing Son of
God, the second God of rank who was with the Father they say from all eternity.
Trinitarians have the problem here not us. For if the Son of God must bow his
will to the first person in the trinity, then the Son must divest himself of
his entire will and make it subject to the Father, leaving the Son with no
"co-equal" will which should have been identical with the Father if
they are in perfect unity and agreement, none greater or lesser than the other.
3.Was
Jesus praying to Himself in the Garden of Gethsemane?
Answer: This is another trinitarian
riddle. No, we do not teach Jesus was praying to himself. The Son of God, the
flesh, was praying to his Father, which was the Holy Ghost. Trinitarians claim
Jesus as God the Son was praying to another God, God the Father! The problem
here is that again the premise of the trinity is shown to be false: all three
are supposed to be "co-equal, co-existent, and co-eternal"? They have
one God praying to another God. This destroys the trinity doctrine that each of
the trinity of persons are equal Gods. If they want to deny it was the flesh
praying to the eternal Deity, then they have no choice but to admit it was one
God praying to another God. The return question to the papacy is this: was one
God praying to another God? And if not how is Jesus at this moment NOT GOD?
4.If
Jesus was praying to the divine side of Himself then isn't He still praying to
himself?
Answer: Since the flesh is
not God, flesh is not praying to flesh. If flesh was praying to flesh, then the
Son of God would be praying to himself. True Oneness teach that the flesh, the
son of David, the Messiah, that born of Mary, the Son of God, prayed to the
eternal Deity which not only dwelt in Jesus but was also omnipresent in heaven
at the same time (1Timothy 3:16). This papacy riddle shows us that the
trinitarians deny the humanity of the Son of God and do not make a distinction
between their alleged eternal Son of God, and the earthly Son of God. Their
answer is that the eternal Son of God was praying to another God, the eternal
God the Father? They have two Gods now whether they like it or not!
Answer: The papacy and their
fellow Catholics deny the flesh of Jesus had a different will from the
indwelling Presence of God within him. When they deny the existence of the will
of the flesh, and merge this will into the mythical eternal Son of God and his
will, they do away with the flesh of Jesus altogether. Flesh dies, an alleged
mythical Son of God who has co-eternality CANNOT DIE! Did flesh die on Calvary
or one third 1/3 of the Godhead? Jesus could say "not my will" since
this was the flesh, the Messiah of Israel, that was near crucifixion. Had Jesus
been the alleged mythical eternal Son of God, he could not have said "NOT
MY WILL" since his will would have been identical with the will of the
other two Gods in the trinity. If there is a difference in the will of the Gods
in the trinity, they are not in perfect unity and in agreement as alleged in
the Creeds. Trinitarians have the problem here not Oneness.
6.If
baptism is essential for salvation, then what happens to someone who repents of
sin, accepts Jesus as Savior, walks across the street to get baptized but is
killed by a car. Does he go to heaven or hell?
1.If he goes to heaven, then baptism
isn't a requirement is it?
2.If he goes to hell, then faith in
Christ isn't sufficient to save him is it?
Answer: This is an old
Baptist song. Its intended purpose is to deny the authority of Acts 2:38 as the
plan of salvation. A person can believe in Jesus and still go to hell. These
Evangelicals claim this against Oneness all the time. They claim we do repent
of our sins; they claim we do believe upon Jesus by faith for salvation; they
claim we have been born again instantly; and then say: "because you have
denied the trinity you have lost your salvation and you are going to
hell." Let's turn the question around: say a person attends a Oneness
Church, believes upon Jesus for salvation, repents, is baptized in Jesus Name,
receives the Holy Ghost, are they lost? Evangelicals such as Baptist yell
"AMEN THEY ARE HELL BOUND!" They are damned to hell on the
technicality of believing baptism was essential to salvation and believing
receiving the Holy Spirit baptism was essential. Meaning, according to the
Baptist, that God refuses to count their faith in accepting Jesus as their
Saviour, God refuses to count their faith in repentance, and God refuses to
count their faith in the confession of their mouth. Baptist judge and damn
Oneness on the technicality of their beliefs after what they themselves claim
is the salvation experience. All because the person believed Acts 2:38 water
baptism was also by faith and that Holy Spirit baptism was also by faith. In
other words, the Baptist and Evangelicals claim the man who gets killed by the
car is saved, but a Oneness person who is NOT KILLED BY THE CAR is still damned
to hell on the technicality of believing by faith in water baptism for the
remission of sins by the blood of Jesus and in Holy Spirit baptism! This
Baptist riddle is designed to deny that baptism can be by faith and is not
works. It is designed to deny that Holy Spirit baptism is by faith and not
works. And it is designed to say that Peter spoke a falsehood in Acts 2:38 when
he commanded all in every place (as many as the Lord our God shall call) to
Repent, be baptized, and to receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. We believe
Peter included in the intent of this message that faith and grace are united in
this one plan of salvation. Baptist hate Acts 2:38 and claim it is all works
that Peter preached. That is why they will not preach it, believe it, or follow
it. Will the man killed by the car die lost? Yes! Since sin is washed away by
the blood of Jesus at the moment of faith in water baptism, he died not having
the atonement of the remission of sins. There is not one verse of Scripture
that says the blood atonement for the remission of sins is granted when a
person accepts Jesus, or when a person prays, or when a person repents. The
blood is applied in the remission of sin upon faith in water baptism in the
name of Jesus Messiah (Christ). Any soul that goes into eternity having been
taught to deny and to recant the essentiality of faith baptism for the
remission of sins by the blood of Jesus as been deceived. The Baptist doctrine
that mental faith only brings salvation is a great deception.
Answer: This papacy riddle
is designed to say that the flesh of the Son of God born of Mary was assumed by
the Eternal Son of God or that it ceases to exist. Let the trinitarians tell us
if the alleged mythical eternal Son of God retained the human body he had upon the
earth for all eternity? And if this alleged eternal mythical Son of God does
not need that fleshly body, WHAT HAPPENED TO IT? God himself, even the
Father, dwelt in the fleshly Son of God. We know this is true because Jesus
said it was the Father in him that doeth the works and not he himself (John
14:10). Jesus NEVER one time ever said that it was the "ETERNAL SON OF GOD
IN HIM THAT DOETH THE WORKS." God himself ADDED to his Deity the fleshly
incarnation, the last visible Divine Presence. The physical image of the Son of
God, Mary's baby, the Messiah of Calvary, was the very IMAGE OF GOD! For the
sacred text says that God made man in his "own" image and likeness.
Therefore the human image of Jesus was the VERY IMAGE OF GOD. Paul said it like
this: "Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his
person" (Hebrew 1:3a). Therefore there is no picking up and laying down of
the Son of God image or body. The Lord God will retain the Son of God image and
body for all eternity SINCE IT IS HIS OWN IMAGE and body in which he dwelt upon
the earth! We now have the revelation that Jesus was the earthly presence of
the invisible God. The glorified body will be God's own likeness and image for
all eternity. When you see God you will see Jesus. When you see Jesus you will
see God! When Jesus shall appear he does so as God, not as Jehovah Junior or as
a second God of rank. This image and likeness will be the image and likeness of
God for all eternity. When Jesus appears he will be God fully revealed. When
Paul looked up to heaven and said "Lord, who art thou," he was
speaking directly to the God of heaven by saying "LORD"! And the Lord
from heaven answered him: "I am Jesus whom thou persecuteth." These
words "I AM" and "Jesus" are so unified as to say I AM GOD! If this was just the spirit of a glorified man, Paul could have said:
"Where is God, I want this straight from him." But Paul took this
voice as the voice of God. Ananias who said in Acts 22:14--"And he said,
the God of our fathers hath chosen thee" confirmed this to him. Also in
Acts 9:11 the same Lord spoke to Ananias to go to Paul. Then in Acts 9:17
Ananias said: "The Lord, even Jesus that appeared to thee in the
way." Paul had a revelation of God in the person of Jesus Messiah (Christ).
God will always be known in the image of Jesus and by the name of Jesus for it
was he and he alone, the Father, who was manifest to the world as Jesus Messiah
in the flesh and seed of David. The name of Jesus means according to most
scholars "God has become salvation" (Some have Jehovah instead of
God). God swore to do this in Psalms 132:11--"The LORD hath sworn in truth
unto David; he will not turn from it; of the fruit of they body will I set
(sit) upon thy throne." Jesus is therefore called Emmanuel, God with us! Does
Jesus as a separate person or God in the Godhead, or in a human body (glorified
or not), morph back and forth between humanity and deity at his Second Coming?
Absolutely NOT!
8.If God is only one person, why did Jesus say in John 14:23,
"If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and
we will come unto him, and make our abode with him." If God is only one
person, why does Jesus say, "we"?
Answer: Obviously
the trinitarians want "we" to mean two Gods or at least two persons whom
they say are both a God. It is the only answer they have for the
"we." What was the outcome of this promise of Jesus? On the day of
Pentecost or afterward, was there a single instance of two persons in the
Godhead dwelling at the same time in a Believer? Give the scripture! What we
find is the Holy Spirit (called the Spirit of Christ in Romans 8:9) indwelling
the Believer, a person in the Godhead not even mentioned in the John 14:23
text. So what does "we" mean? Does it mean two separate Gods will
come and indwell those who keep the Commandments of Jesus and the Holy Spirit
will not? No it does not! The dual nature of Jesus explains this text. It was
the flesh here speaking, The dabar or imrah of God (Word) manifest. He who was
flesh and Deity as the "we", the Father and the Son in one, would
indwell in the Believer as the one Holy Ghost when the flesh was glorified into
the deity and image of the Father. Therefore "I and my Father are
one." While the flesh and deity fulfilled a separate purpose, the flesh
speaking at times and deity speaking at times, the time would come when one
Spirit would come into the believer and that one Spirit is the Father, Son, and
the Holy Ghost, one God. If "we" is talking about two separate Gods,
two separate Spirits, two separate beings, and therefore two separate persons,
then let the trinitarians say this. Are they admitting by the question that
there must be two or more Gods for the "we" to mean to separate
persons? They do not want "we" to mean this. If there are two separate
persons then there are two separate Gods. For a person that does not have a
spirit never had it own spirit, ...is not person. And we know there is only one
God! If Jesus is a separate person with a separate Spirit from the Father, then
this makes two Gods. "We" then is a trinitarian riddle they refuse to
answer when we force the question if "we" makes more than one God!
Answer: This riddle again poses
a question that cuts hard across the theory of the Plato trinity doctrine. If
by the question the questioner means they saw God the Son and not God the
Father, then they did see God, since the trinitarians claim the Father, Son,
and Holy Ghost are one God! So, as far as the trinity doctrine is concerned, it
makes no difference if they saw the Son or the Father, they would have seen
God! Now the fact is they saw God. The Word of God says they saw God. Did Jesus
lie when he said no man has seen God at any time? Did Adam see God who came to
commune with him in the Garden? Did Adam lose this ability in his sinful state?
Will man be restored to the spiritual condition some day where he can see God
in a glorified body somewhat like Adam had before he sinned? The answer is
obviously yes! The Word of God says: "And he said, Thou canst not see my
face" for there shall no man see me, and live (Exodus 33:17-20). Two
things, God said he would show Moses his body and then said he would not show
him his face. No man has seen the face of God at any time. That is all that
Jesus meant since his word could not contradict the Word of God in Exodus. To
say that no man hath seen God at any time is to make a whole lot of Scriptures
false, and a good Baptist would rather be torn apart by a team of horses then
to admit the Bible had errors in it. I will add here also, that God appeared to
Abraham in Genesis 18:3 and in this text Abraham called God Adonay. Did Abraham
call Adonay to God the Father or God the Son? Who is the God of Abraham, but
the one God of the first Commandment who forbid any theory of a plurality of
Gods. Did Abraham see God? Yes, he saw God! We call these "modes" (a
word the papist hate), Theophanes. Let the blaspheming trinitarians tell us God
did not manifest himself in different "modes", different
"forms", and different "bodies", different theophanies in
the Old Testament and make liars out of themselves. God appeared in Theophanes
(modes) throughout the Old Testament. Jesus Messiah was the last theophany of God!
By "theophany" I of course mean a "God presence."
Were
I a trinitarian I would be ashamed to have asked such questions. They show not
only ignorance about the doctrine of the trinity, they show utter nonsense in
understanding the Oneness of God.